The answer would be no, because the world would then fall into chaos. Then Kant would ask, “Would it be consistent for me to will this to become a universal law of nature.” The answer would also be no. So in this case, it is determined that stealing is immoral. There are many differences between Aristotle and Kant...
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The answer would be no, because the world would then fall into chaos. Then Kant would ask, “Would it be consistent for me to will this to become a universal law of nature.” The answer would also be no. So in this case, it is determined that stealing is immoral. There are many differences between Aristotle and Kant...
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Kants categorical Imperitave applied Secondly, one should act in a way that all rational beings are treated as ends in themselves, never as means merely. In this version of categorical imperative, consent has much to do with whether of not you are treating a person as means merely...	2 / 484
kant's moral theory Not to return money, if put into a universal law, nobody ever returned the money, and everybody broke their promises, there would be no promises, and the act is not in accordance with duty...	3 / 641
Kant's Fundamental Principles Of The Metaphysics Of Moral The first example is of a man who is suffering from many misfortunes in life and wishes to commit sucicide on the basis of self-love. Kant declares that this cannot be the categorical imperative at work because the maxim derived from self-love, to shorten his life to avoid more pain, is a contradiction in itself for no man can kill himself painlessly and therefore cannot be a universal maxim...	3 / 792
my dick in order to determine whether a rule is a " moral law, we can thus ask if the rule commands would be acceptable to all rational beings acting rationally...	2 / 287